Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 03.07.2025 00:40
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Tulsa, Oklahoma, plans more than $105m in reparations for America's 'hidden' massacre - BBC
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
There's no rule.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Truck crashes into store at N.J. shopping mall, police say - NJ.com
You'll usually find your answer there.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.